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On Tue, Sep 18, 2012 at 1:08 PM, Mike S. <maikxlx@gmail.com> wrote: >> >> Okay, that may be reasonable. Let's imagine two separate but utterly >> identical universes/worlds/situations/cases identical in all respects, >> containing the same entities, history, etc. The universes are similar to >> ours, and everything in these two universes is the same as each other until >> a certain moment in which some interlocutor identical in those worlds up >> until that moment says a sentence. > > In U1, he says: "la sma mlta." > > In U2, he says: "la sma na mlta. > > No tricks intended, which sentence if any is true, and why. Neither is true in the absolute, nor false in the absolute. It depends a lot on what he doesn't say, which may or may not be glorkable from context. If his idea is "[re fsne fe] la sma mlta" that sounds false, as does "[re fsne fe] la sma na mlta" .If his idea is "[se fsne fe] la sma mlta", then that sounds true, as does "[se fsne fe] la sma na mlta". More likely his idea is "[le je fsne pnsa'ake fe] la sma mlta", which would require us to discern which situation he is trying to describe before deciding whether his description is true or false. co ma'a xrxe