[YG Conlang Archives] > [romconlang group] > messages [Date Index] [Thread Index] >
Peter Collier skrev: >> <AFMOCL> > > 'AFMOCL' ? > AFMOC(L) = "as for my own conlang". One of the group-badge abbreviations used in the CONLANG-L subculture. See <http://wiki.frath.net/Conlang-L_FAQ#Acronyms> >> FWIW I'm not so sure that -S would be lost. For one >> thing it did persist for quite some time in Gallo- >> Romance, and for the other it was -z, the voiced s, >> which was lost in West Germanic, while the voiceless -s >> remained. Which final -s'es became voicelsess and not >> was originally determined by the position of the PIE >> accent (Verner's law), so it must have differed between >> words, but then different Germanic languages leveled it >> out differently: Old English had gen.sg. stanes and >> nom./acc.pl. stanas, while Old Norse had >> steins/steinar,Mod.German Stein(e)s/Steine (prob. < >> *staines/*stainôz, I don't have the sources by me, and >> I don't remember off the top of my head). So in >> principle your lang could preserve Latin -s, though it >> would perhaps not be in character to preserve >> nom.sg.(masc.) -s? > > My understanding of V's Law is that the relevant > consonants became voiced if the preceding vowel was > unstressed (with a few blocking conditions to take into > account). I don't know if the PIE stress is different to > CL, or by how much, but as I only have the CL to go on > it's moot anyway (no-one is going to check too closely, > right?). With the Latin penult stress rules applying, the > final vowel will always be unstressed, so /s/ | _# will > always become /z/ and then ultimately /Ø/. My understanding is that by the time Latin reached Germania - Verner's Law had long since ceased to be operative, - Latin -S was and remained voiceless, - -S ought to remain in a Germano-Romance which preserves cases, rather as it did in Old French + You would get the same weird situation as in Old French where 2nd declension masculines would get nominative singular identical to accusative plural, *and vice versa*! - A lot of -s might seem out of character for a German-like lang, but OTOH the -(e)s genitive is quite prevalent especially in somewhat older texts, before the colloquial expression with von encroached upon the written language (not that it's IMHO a Bad Thing for written language to stay in synch with spoken language, mind you! :-) >> I'm not wholly convinced that such a vagueness is >> something that must be resisted. With the risk of >> repeating myself this is the kind of thing that happens >> in language. Part of the fun of diachronic conlanging is >> IMHO to follow the flow and see where your GMP takes you. >> Besides German is about equally vague in those cases >> where a verb already has a prefix. OTOH the idea that a >> Germano-Romance lang would develop an equivalent of ge- >> is kind of cool, and the added incentive that speakers >> perceive a vagueness in existing markers due to phonetic >> attrition is also the kind of thing which happens in >> language. > > The fun is indeed in the process more than the result, > you're right. The problem I have right now is having a > very limited vocab but still trying to see the whole > puzzle from the few pieces available to try and keep it > all on track. Being a bit of a control freak... I know the feeling. It's especially frustrating when you apply a certain process to get a desired result in one part of vocab, and it leads to undesirable results in another part of vocab. > The challenge of course is that Latin is all about word > final inflections, and the Germanics are about levelled > endings, vowel changes and word order, and you need to try > and get from the one to the other in a logical and > linguistically consistent way without landing in shapeless > meaningless goo somewhere in the middle. On a few > occasions now I've ended up in a lingiuistic cul-de-sac > and had to back track and try a different approach. On > some occasions though, you feel it's the right way but > nevertheless it reaches a stage where the attrition goes > too far and any naturally developing language would > innovate out of necessity - and then it's a question of > trying to figure out what 'they' might do. Usually in real languages attrition runs its course and then 'they' create some new 'roundabout' expression with existing material. >> Rather than asking what is the etymological counterpart >> of ge-, which Germans learning Latin in the first century >> would have no way of knowing, you should ask what the >> closest semantic equivalent in Vulgar Latin would be. >> Incidentally in this case it would probably be either CON >> or PER. In fact PER has some things going for it: > > I know, it was a bit of lazy blue sky thinking on my part. > I wasn't too sure whence the ge- had come, other than it > had developed from an earlier germanic ga-,and had only > just looked it up earlier that day. Early days for the > idea, I'll be kicking it around for a while yet. PER is an > interesting suggestion. At the same time CON feels somehow more realistic to me, including having some semantic vagueness which invites reinterpretation. > Pete > /BP 8^)> -- Benct Philip Jonsson -- melroch atte melroch dotte se ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ "C'est en vain que nos Josués littéraires crient à la langue de s'arrêter; les langues ni le soleil ne s'arrêtent plus. Le jour où elles se *fixent*, c'est qu'elles meurent." (Victor Hugo)