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RE: [jboske] Nick on propositionalism &c. (was: RE: Digest Number 134




la and cusku di'e

> > CLL
> > {loi} = {pisu'o loi} & means "pisu'o loi"
> > {piroloi} means "piro loi" = "loi"
>
> What does the final '= "loi"' mean?

It means that "pi ro loi" means the same as "loi". They are
interchangeable.

If I understand And correctly, what he means by this is
that {piro loi} means the same as "the mass", and "the mass"
is {loi}.

I think this idea may come from the fact that {loi broda}
is almost always translated to English as "the mass of broda".
This translation is obviously incompatible with {pisu'o
loi broda} = "some part of the mass of all broda".

For some reason {lo} has been rescued from "the". Almost
nobody anymore translates {lo broda} as "the really-is broda",
for example. Nobody argues that because {lo cipni cu vofli} is
true and {lo cipni naku vofli} is also true, then {lo cipni cu
vofli gi'enai vofli} must also be true. Nobody says "the
really-is bird both flies and doesn't fly".

But {(pisu'o) loi} has not yet got rid of its "the" gloss,
and then we get all the nonsense about "the mass" both being
broda and not being broda, when all we can say is that some
part is and some (other) part isn't.

mu'o mi'e xorxes


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