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RE: [jboske] putative tense scope effects (was: RE:



xod:
> On Mon, 28 Oct 2002, John Cowan wrote:
> 
> > Invent Yourself scripsit:
> >
> > > Do you sanction all that Jorge is recently saying concerning the "scope"
> > > of lo broda? What about the placement of tense sumtcita phrases?
> >
> > Sanction, no.  Nor will I impose sanctions on it.  :-)
> >
> > Sorry, but keeping up with jboske except in the most marginal way is
> > simply beyond me 
> 
> I understand 
> 
> If you feel that lo broda === da poi broda, then the order of introduction
> of lo broda makes an impact on the meaning. But what about le broda?

That equivalence is standard and has gone virtually unchallenged for 
years. (I say virtually, because pc wants there to be a difference,
but it's not a difference relevant to the discussion of scope.
 
> And, to confirm, in your opinion, these Lojban sentences are actually
> identical in meaning?
> 
> ca ro djedi lo nanmu cu cinba la meris
> lo nanmu ca ro djedi cu cinba la meris

Certainly they aren't equivalent. I realize you're just asking for
clarification, but we can't go round discarding long- and firmly-
established principles just because the somewhat erratic processes
of documenting our discussions never led to them being properly
documented.

--And.