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Re: [jboske] putative tense scope effects (was: RE:



In a message dated 11/2/2002 9:15:04 PM Central Standard Time, xod@hidden.email writes:
<<
Is it a coincidence that the meaning you assign to the Lojban word orders
match that typically assigned to the English reading too? Is this an
arbitrary convention, whether or not it is mirrored by other natural
languages too? Or could the custom have been that the scope interpretation
be reversed, for instance?

>>
As usual, the interpretation of order is a natural generalization of the rules in logic notation and seem to be the most natural one, pulling to the front in left-to-right order.  Others would require reordering and mean that the scope was not directly demarcated in the text (or that some  more complex convention was used).  Any convention would have some problems, this (or its RPN mirror) seems to have the fewest.
Of course, the conventions in logic may well come from those of the natural language of the logicians.