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Summary of where we are so far: 1. The main protagonists in the debate agree that there is a good utilitarian case for {lo'ei} and {le'ei} being in the language. 2. We have a pretty good understanding of what {lo'ei} and {le'ei} mean. 3. We all agree that {lo'ei} and {le'ei} aren't equivalent to official {lo'e} and {le'e}, but they are equivalent in the Llambian idiom/dialect (and have been so consistently for the last 8 years). This still leaves the questions: * What do official {lo'e} and {le'e} mean? * How do we express various sorts of generics? I dealt with these in an earlier message ("Carving the lo'e debate into shape"). I can repost the relevant portion, if anyone wants me to. --And.