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On 08/02/2007 10:35, Deiniol Jones wrote:
Henrik Theiling wrote:Deiniol Jones writes: > IOSEPHVS > *jos�pu Why not -f-?I should probably have written *jos�(p/f)u, really. The variant with the *-p- clearly underlies Italian "Giuseppe" and Catalan "Josep", while the variant with the *-f- accounts for Spanish "Jos�" etc.
A proto-Romance voiceless bilabial fricative, p\ ??? Or is that too dramatic? I haven't checked my sources at all, here, just speculating ....
Is there a possibility in these Biblical names that learned spellings/pronunciations are affecting popular usage?
Cheers, Carl -- Carl Edlund Anderson mailto:cea@hidden.email http://www.carlaz.com/