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On Thursday, March 25, 2004, at 11:45 PM, yitzik_ua wrote:
Sorry if this msg comes twice; I've been experiencing problems with e-mailing.On Thursday, March 25, 2004 10:45 AM Steg Belsky wrote:<<It's 2pl - it comes from the Spanish endings -?is, -?is, -?s. I guess the /i/ merged with the /s/ in the same way that in English (at least my dialect) |sure| is pronounced with an initial /S/ that developed from /sj/.>>Ok. /S/ < /s/ under palatalization is reasonable. Next couple of questions: - is it the *last* syllable that is stressed in -sh forms? So, is _meldash_ pronounced as [mel"daS] or ["meldaS]?
I'd assume so but i don't know for sure.
- is there a 2sn form, like Spanish _(t?) quieres_?
I'm pretty sure the 2sn is the same as Spanish.
- is the 2pl form used also as a polite address form (instead of Spanish 3sn _Usted quiere_)?
I don't think so but once again i'm not sure.
And an extra question: I saw a form _kere_ = Sp. _quiere_, _ken_ = Sp. _qui?n_. Does this mean that in certain positions /E/ did not undergo breaking into /jE/?Truly yours, -- Yitzik
Correct, but unfortunately i haven't been able to figure out how it works. It may just be dialect mixing with different words coming from different dialects. For instance, while "quién quiere" is "ken kere", "tierra" is "tyer(r)a". That's actually anothing i don't know about Ladino - whether it distinguishes |r| and |rr|.
-Stephen (Steg)
"Let them come.
There is one dwarf yet in Moria who still draws breath."
~ gimli son of gloin, LotR:FotR (movie version, at least)