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Sorry if this msg comes twice; I've been experiencing problems with e-mailing. On Thursday, March 25, 2004 10:45 AM Steg Belsky wrote: <<It's 2pl - it comes from the Spanish endings -?is, -?is, -?s. I guess the /i/ merged with the /s/ in the same way that in English (at least my dialect) |sure| is pronounced with an initial /S/ that developed from /sj/.>> Ok. /S/ < /s/ under palatalization is reasonable. Next couple of questions: - is it the *last* syllable that is stressed in -sh forms? So, is _meldash_ pronounced as [mel"daS] or ["meldaS]? - is there a 2sn form, like Spanish _(t?) quieres_? - is the 2pl form used also as a polite address form (instead of Spanish 3sn _Usted quiere_)? And an extra question: I saw a form _kere_ = Sp. _quiere_, _ken_ = Sp. _qui?n_. Does this mean that in certain positions /E/ did not undergo breaking into /jE/? Truly yours, -- Yitzik