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Re: Ladino verb ending



Sorry if this msg comes twice; I've been experiencing problems with e-mailing.

On Thursday, March 25, 2004 10:45 AM Steg Belsky wrote:

<<It's 2pl - it comes from the Spanish endings -?is, -?is, -?s.  I guess the /i/ merged with the /s/ in the same way that in English (at least my dialect) |sure| is pronounced with an initial /S/ that developed from /sj/.>>

Ok. /S/ < /s/ under palatalization is reasonable.
Next couple of questions:
- is it the *last* syllable that is stressed in -sh forms? So, is
_meldash_ pronounced as [mel"daS] or ["meldaS]?
- is there a 2sn form, like Spanish _(t?) quieres_?
- is the 2pl form used also as a polite address form (instead of Spanish 3sn _Usted quiere_)?
And an extra question: I saw a form _kere_ = Sp. _quiere_, _ken_ = Sp. _qui?n_. Does this mean that in certain positions /E/ did not undergo breaking into /jE/?

Truly yours,
-- Yitzik