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RE: [jboske] carving the lo'e debate into shape (was: RE: My last will and testament on lo'e



John:
> And Rosta scripsit:
>
> > * "I like chocolate" -- "I like the chocolate exemplar", "If you
> >   abstract away from all different instances of chocolate, what you
> >   end up with is liked by me"
> > * "This depicts a snake" -- "This depicts the snake exemplar",
> >   "If you abstract away from all different instances of snakes,
> >   what you end up with is depicted by this."
> > This is the meaning I intend for {loi'e} and {lei'e} to have:
> >   mi nelci loi'e cakla
> >   ti pixra loi'e since
>
> I think this is perfectly consistent with CLL lo'e.  lo'ei is clearly
> not, since lo'ei cinfo lives in Iran as well as Africa, whereas lo'e
> cinfo lives (I am told) solely in Africa.  (Lo'e remna doesn't have a
> continent of residence, though.)

This is very encouraging, because I too think that "loi'e/lei'e" is
the best answer to "What do lo'e/le'e mean (outside of xorxesian
dialect)?".

> If you think that loi'e can be used in some sentence that is inconsistent
> with CLL lo'e, I'd like to see it

I don't want to argue that there is a difference, but if someone wanted
to make that argument, they could argue that lo'e could be said to be inherently
and inescapably bound up with generalizations about typicality,
whereas loi'e is not.

> Is your phrase "myopic singularization" intended to be captured by loi'e
> as shown above, or have you abandoned that characterization?

Yes, I see loi'e/lei'e as the myopic singularizers.

--And.