Re: [engelang] phonology

 

Am 17.09.2012 03:27, schrieb And Rosta:

> selpa'i, On 17/09/2012 00:11:
>> Am 16.09.2012 23:47, schrieb Mike S.:
>>>> What is the phonological value of <h>, which I have been using
>>>> experimentally?
>>> Nothing but [x, h] makes any sense.
>>>
>>> Agreed, and probably only one of /x h/ should be allowed. The
>>> other alternative is that /h/ is pronounced as the breathy-voiced
>>> glottal fricative which is how I suspect most English speakers are
>>> pronouncing Lojban <'> anyway, but that's a tricky sound
>>> cross-linguistically, isn't it. I remember some Eastern European
>>> saying on the Lojban list that he was using [G] for <'>, which I
>>> take as another indication that contrastive /h x/ is problematic.
>> Really? [x] is hard to distinguish from [h] for English speakers?
> No, e.g. /ihi/ and /ixi/ would be hard to distinguish for human beings in general.

So am I an exception? I couldn't really believe that, so I opened
Audacity and recorded [ihi] and [ixi] in random order. The difference is
like night and day to me, so I'm not sure what this is all about.