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Re: [engelang] phonology



Am 17.09.2012 03:27, schrieb And Rosta:
selpa'i, On 17/09/2012 00:11:
Am 16.09.2012 23:47, schrieb Mike S.:
What is the phonological value of <h>, which I have been using
experimentally?
Nothing but [x, h] makes any sense.

Agreed, and probably only one of /x h/ should be allowed.  The
other alternative is that /h/ is pronounced as the breathy-voiced
glottal fricative which is how I suspect most English speakers are
  pronouncing Lojban <'> anyway, but that's a tricky sound
cross-linguistically, isn't it. I remember some Eastern European
saying on the Lojban list that he was using [G] for <'>, which I
take as another indication that contrastive /h x/ is problematic.
Really? [x] is hard to distinguish from [h] for English speakers?
No, e.g. /ihi/ and /ixi/ would be hard to distinguish for human beings in general.

So am I an exception? I couldn't really believe that, so I opened Audacity and recorded [ihi] and [ixi] in random order. The difference is like night and day to me, so I'm not sure what this is all about.

I think as long as <'> doesn't become [?], I won't compain.
There had been a consensus for <'> being [?]! Xorban <'>, that is. There's no consensus on whether Lojban <'> has any reflex in Xorban.

Oh! Uhm... okay :) . I had expected <'> to be [h]. Don't you then have two [?], once as <'> and once as <q> ?

mu'o mi'e la selpa'i

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