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--- In westasianconlangs@yahoogroups.com, "eamoniski" <eamoniski@...> wrote: > > Hello everyone! I have a basic question: if constructing a language > that has a fairly-IE-typical verb grammar (think Balkan Indo-European, > actually), and borrowing a substantial number of verbs from a Semitic > language (specifically Hebrew, also some Aramaic), what form of the > verb would most likely be the borrowed form? I figure I would use the > unmarked form of the verb (3rd-masc. past in Modern Hebrew if I'm not > mistaken). Perhaps the whole paradigm could be inherited.