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Hello everyone! I have a basic question: if constructing a language that has a fairly-IE-typical verb grammar (think Balkan Indo-European, actually), and borrowing a substantial number of verbs from a Semitic language (specifically Hebrew, also some Aramaic), what form of the verb would most likely be the borrowed form? I figure I would use the unmarked form of the verb (3rd-masc. past in Modern Hebrew if I'm not mistaken). I made a brief attempt to examine some languages that had borrowed verbs from Semitic languages like Hebrew and Arabic but aside from the obvious "do" construct, I don't have the resources at this moment to do the proper research. It would be interesting to know what Creole Arabic like Nubi and Juba do; what Arabic verb form is the basis of their verbal systems? I'm not sure. Anyway, I'm eager to hear what ideas others have. Cheers, Eamon