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Re: Basics of New RomLang: Thoughts and Opinions, Please



>>So you are privileging case over gender in the dative and ablative?<<

Yes.

>>Why do you favor locative as the default meaning of the abliative? 
Would it not be truer to the Latin predecessor to favor some form of 
separation as default of the ablative?<< 

This is kind of hard to explain, but I think it just seemed the most 
efficient way to design the ablative/locative case.  Since the 
locative differs from the ablative only in the masculine and feminine 
singular of the first and second declensions, it seemed almost natural 
that the distinct locative case (already very much endangered in 
Classical Latin) would disappear completely into the ablative case in 
a hypothetical modern form.

>>Do all verbs take the accusative?<<

Certainly not.  Transitive verbs take the accusative.  Intransitive 
verbs, if they have an object at all, take the dative.  "I give my mom 
flowers," for example, would be "Do matri mi flories."  "Flowers" is 
in the accusative but "mother" is in the dative.

>>Most of these make sense. But s + s or z = x? 
Surely such a combination would result in ss . Why are you using -tes 
instead of Classical Latin -tis as verbal ending?<<

Very true.  However, one of the design principles is phonetic 
simplicity, so I'm trying to avoid double consonants altogether.  
The "tes" ending in the 2nd person plural is due to a slight Vulgar 
Latin influence (which is also responsible for the nominative 
singular -o ending instead of -us).

>>1sg., 3sg., and 3pl. present appear have the same final form. Does 
this mean that pronouns are required? Or is the declension (amor, 
amaris, amator, amamur, amatini, amantor). If so, why do you favor -o- 
over original Latin -u-? Is there an aesthetic preference?<<

You have just conjugated "amar" correctly in the present indicative 
passive voice according to the basics I've set forth.  The -tor 
instead of -tur is an aesthetic preference.  The sound of /ur/ just 
sounds awkward to me, which means I should probably change the 1pl. 
form to dropping the /us/ and adding /or/, now that I think about it.  

I almost replaced all the u's with o's, (i.e. "bonibus" instead 
of "bonibus" just for the sake of having a few odd morphological 
attributes, but I don't like using /o/ or /a/ at the end of words that 
don't reflect gender, since /o/ tends to imply if not denote 
masculinity and /a/ tends to imply if not denote femininity.  Plus I 
needed a gender-neutral vowel for the ending of neuter words.

However, I may yet reverse this decision in the name of a more 
consistent morphology. What would your recommendation be?

>>How about declining "eser" for us (or is it regular?)?<<

"eser" is, in my opinion, one of those verbs that would be really hard 
to justifiably make regular.  Keeping in mind the aforementioned o/u 
dilemma, here's what I'm thinking for forms of "eser"

Present Indicative
som         somus
es          estes
est         sont

Present Subjunctive
sim         simus
sis         sites
sit         sint

Perfect Stem: fu-

Imperfect & Future Stem: er-

Present Participle: sent
Past Participle: sito/a/u
Future Participle: futuro/a/u

>>What are the allowable final consonants?<<
Most commonly, /t/, /l/, and /r/

FYI: When I was revising this as I went along, I forgot to remove the 
final /e/ from regular present participles.  The nominative singular 
present participle of "mostrar" should be "mostrant" not "mostrante."

Thanks for the feedback!  If you have anymore based on my responses, 
feel free to reply.

Gregory H. Bontrager