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And Rosta scripsit:
> > > Why then would the antecedent be "la djan" in "le la djan mamta ri"?
> > > Isn't "le la djan mamta" the first complete sumti?
> >
> > No. Look at the grammar and you'll see why. "la djan." is a
> > complete sumti
>
> Anyway, is "le la djan mamta" not a complete sumti? If it is,
> how come it is "la djan" that is the *first* complete sumti?
The idea is that ri is coreferential with the *rightmost* complete sumti
which precedes it, where sumti are ordered by their *leftmost* words.
Thus "le la djan mamta" is left of "la djan", and so "la djan" is the
rightmost complete sumti.
Arguably this definition violates a universal (it ignores nesting) but
it is the definition.
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