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On Sat, 2 Nov 2002, John Cowan wrote: > Invent Yourself scripsit: > > > Is it a coincidence that the meaning you assign to the Lojban word orders > > match that typically assigned to the English reading too? Is this an > > arbitrary convention, whether or not it is mirrored by other natural > > languages too? Or could the custom have been that the scope interpretation > > be reversed, for instance? > > It could have been. But it would break with not only the English convention, > but much more importantly, the convention of formal logic, which scopes > variables from their appearance rightwards. So "roda broda de" means > "Ax Ey broda(x,y)". But the logical convention was only abstracted from the English (or French or German or whatever), yes? -- Henry McCullers, an affable Plano, TX-area anti-Semite, praised the Jewish people Monday for doing "a bang-up job" running the media. "This has been such a great year for movies, and the new crop of fall TV shows looks to be one of the best in years," McCullers said. "And the cable news channels are doing a terrific job, too. Admittedly, they're not reporting on the Jewish stranglehold on world finance, but, hey, that's understandable."