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If there is such a bias, it must be universal, but I don't know if there is. I suspect it's universal, that the i/y contrast is greater than u/M, but I can't cite formant values or a phonetics textbook to support that.
--- In engelang@yahoogroups.com, And Rosta <and.rosta@...> wrote:
> There are very few parts of the UK where it's still [u] and in some parts it's already [y]. As for filling the gap vacated by GOOSE, some dialects pretty much have _too_ [ty], _tool, tall_ [tu].
The bias towards /y/ and against /M/ * is something universal or (Indo-)European?
* I'm using X-SAMPA:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/X-sampa
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