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Re: [westasianconlangs] Re: Any new ideas?

On Jan 19, 2006, at 10:11 AM, Jacob wrote:

Thanks for your input.  I agree that there was a transition from the
earlier Semitic /a/ to the later Canaanite /o/ in the Hebrew
language.  That is what I was trying to say, that the earlier speech
of the Hebrew people was void of Canaanite influence.  The
original /a/ vowel over an original /o/ is what I was taught since I
was young.  One must remember that the Hebrew people didn't
originate in Canaan but rather migrated westward from Ur of the
Kasdim in Shumer.  The /o/ vowel primacy may hold up for later time
periods, i.e., once the Hebrews had settled in Canaan, but before
that time I very much doubt that they used it.  The /a/ and the /u/
would have been much more prominant, especially under the influence
of Akkadian.
Considering that Hebrew is a Canaanite language, i think it's safe to assume that before they got to Canaan, the Hebrews were speaking Hurrian, Aramaic, or some other Mesopotamian language, either in Southern Ur (of Shumer) or in Northern Ur (Urfa, Turkey). I personally prefer the Northern theory. 


-Stephen (Steg)