[YG Conlang Archives] > [westasianconlangs group] > messages [Date Index] [Thread Index] >
On Sunday, March 21, 2004, at 04:38 PM, Adam Walker wrote:
--- Isaac Penzev <isaacp@hidden.email> wrote:Adam Walker wrote:I think more than anything it's the fact that I'm unsure what the difference between sin and samekh was/is andwhetherit would be important to C-a.[skip]Shin is always borrowed as |x| /S/. Samekh is borrowed as |s| /s/. And tsadek is borrowed as|z|/z/. It's sin I'm unsure of.From what we know of some misspellings in Mishnah, at least as early as in the 2nd c. AD both sin and samekh were pronounced the same: [s]. -- YitzikAny ideas how they were pronounced about 600 years earlier? The Punic speakers moved into North Africa long before the 2nd c. and by 2nd. c. (in my timeline) Carthage is already speaking North African Vulgar Latin. Adam
If i remember correctly, in Phoenician (of which Punic is a descendent/dialect), |sin| (originally a Lateral-/s/) was written with the same letter as |shin| /S/, just like in Hebrew. However, it's unclear whether that means that they were both pronounced /S/ or whether, like in Hebrew, /K/ (i think that's the correct symbol) and /S/ were just written with the same letter but pronounced differently.
-Stephen (Steg) "Levity is good. It relieves tension, and fear of death." ~ terminator 3