[YG Conlang Archives] > [westasianconlangs group] > messages [Date Index] [Thread Index] >
> > Is /h/ in Semitic languages
> > voiceless [h] or voiced [h\]?
>
> AFAIK it's voiceless [h].
> At least that's what it is in Modern Standard Hebrew.
It seems slightly strange to me
that the voiceless fricative is used to mark [a:].
(/j/ and /w/ are voiced, aren't they?)
Would not be `ajin more appropriate?
P.A.