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> > Is /h/ in Semitic languages > > voiceless [h] or voiced [h\]? > > AFAIK it's voiceless [h]. > At least that's what it is in Modern Standard Hebrew. It seems slightly strange to me that the voiceless fricative is used to mark [a:]. (/j/ and /w/ are voiced, aren't they?) Would not be `ajin more appropriate? P.A.