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Re: [westasianconlangs] /h/



> > Is /h/ in Semitic languages 
> > voiceless [h] or voiced [h\]?
> 
> AFAIK it's voiceless [h].
> At least that's what it is in Modern Standard Hebrew.

It seems slightly strange to me 
that the voiceless fricative is used to mark [a:].
(/j/ and /w/ are voiced, aren't they?)
Would not be `ajin more appropriate?

      P.A.