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Replying to habarakhe and draqonfayir: > > Also is [s<lat>] closer to an emphatic s or to [S]? > > I'd say [S]. I've heard of /s<lat>/ going to /S/ in Arabic, and /s/ in > Hebrew, but never to emphatic S. I'm sure you could have lateral-S go to > emphatic-S, if your emphaticness is something like pharyngealization. But > if it's something conarticulated but distinct from tongue > shape/placement, like glottalization for instance, i don't see how it > could develop. I may suppose that if Emegali is a Semito-Sumerian mix, it may have developped /l/ or /K/ on place of /s<lat>/. Some scholars even think /s<lat>/ indeed *was* /K/! Compare He. |bo:s<lat>em| and its loan into Greek as |balsamon|. Yitzik