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On Sat, 25 Jan 2003 06:47:30 -0000 "habarakhe4 <theophilus88@hidden.email>" <theophilus88@hidden.email> writes: > Also is [s<lat>] closer to an emphatic s or to [S]? - I'd say [S]. I've heard of /s<lat>/ going to /S/ in Arabic, and /s/ in Hebrew, but never to emphatic S. I'm sure you could have lateral-S go to emphatic-S, if your emphaticness is something like pharyngealization. But if it's something conarticulated but distinct from tongue shape/placement, like glottalization for instance, i don't see how it could develop. -Stephen (Steg) "i'm a wabbit swaya, a guita pwaya; with a nasty habit: kill the wabbit! ...and the'e won't be any mo'e wabbits awound - no mo'e wogea wabbit, no mo'e peta wabbit, no mo'e pwayboy bunny wabbits! a ha ha ha ha! be vewy vewy ca'eful..." ~ 'ozzy fudd' ________________________________________________________________ Sign Up for Juno Platinum Internet Access Today Only $9.95 per month! Visit www.juno.com