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Benct Philip Jonsson skrev:
Nothing...
Sorry about that one. The d*****d Gmail in the mobile played
a trick on me!
What I meant to say/ask was that as far as I know it is the
case for all the national states of Europe that the name of
the country and the name of the national language are
derived from the same base. Even where several languages
share a single standard language, as with English and German
the language name shares its base with one of the countries
where it is spoken.
The one real exception I can think of is España--
castellano, and even there the language is called español
more often than not, at least outside Spain where the
sensibilities of speakers of other languages of Spain
isn't an issue.
Even outside Europe exceptions are rare, except for Africa
where ethnic boundaries and old colonial boundaries seldom
coincide. Urdu in Pakistan and Hebrew in Israel are
transparent special cases.
The only exception I can think of which resembles my Borgonze-
Rhodray case is Iran--Farsi, where the name of the language
is derived from the name of a dominant part of the country.
Can anyone think of other pertinent examples?
/BP 8^)>
--
Benct Philip Jonsson -- melroch atte melroch dotte se
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a shprakh iz a dialekt mit an armey un flot
(Max Weinreich)