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My newest conlang for which I addressed my earlier questions about estar and ser is called Mandero. I am developing it by comparison, a method I have not used before. I am comparing 3 languages, Spanish, Portuguese and Galician to develop something new. Mandero is spoken on the ficticious island of Mandero northwest of Spain. My plan is to see the 3rd person plural verb form decay from ending in -n/m such that the n/m is dropped thus making the 3rd singular and 3rd plural the same form. Would this necessarily force the need for a pronoun to used at all times with the 3rd person to distinguish singular and plural? Would such a change then force the requirement of a pronoun with all forms? Thanks Scotto