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--- "Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@hidden.email> wrote:On Fri, Jul 30, 2004 at 07:35:17AM -0700, Adam Walker wrote: > I'm trying to choose between two possible etymologies > for "in a huff" and I'm dithering between a native > derivation directly from Late Latin "inodiare" + VL > -icius</i> and an Old Provencial derivation as above. > At this point it all comes down to the "j". Why does the pronunciation of the <j> matter, though? It doesn't affect the derivation one way or the other . . .Of course it does. If the <j> in OP is pronounced any way other than /dZ)/ then I have a choice of how the word will look/sound in C-a. If it is /dZ)/ *then* it doesn't matter (and would, in fact, be impossible to prove the etymology) since it would come out the same either way. If OP <j> is anything else then I have one of my as-yet-too-rare borrowings from Old Provencial established. (Unless the OP sound is something that would force a C-a form too ugly to contemplate.) So you see, the sound of OP <j> is all important to this question. It is, in fact, the only question of relevance at this moment of my delirium.
Apparently it is /dZ/ in the _modern_ language[1]; if this is the case it is less likely that it was anything more fricative in the intermediate period (and /x/ can probably be safely discounted altogether).
*Muke![1] http://www.orbilat.com/Languages/Occitan/Grammar/Occitan-Pronunciation.html (the example is miï¿œja "half")
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