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Re: [romconlang] Old Provencial question



On Sun, 1 Aug 2004 13:55:03 -0700 (PDT), Adam Walker <carrajena@hidden.email> wrote:
--- "Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@hidden.email> wrote:

On Fri, Jul 30, 2004 at 07:35:17AM -0700, Adam
Walker wrote:
> I'm trying to choose between two possible etymologies
> for "in a huff" and I'm dithering between a native
> derivation directly from Late Latin "inodiare" + VL
> -icius</i> and an Old Provencial derivation as above.
> At this point it all comes down to the "j".

Why does the pronunciation of the <j> matter,
though?
It doesn't affect the derivation one way or the
other . . .

Of course it does.  If the <j> in OP is pronounced any
way other than /dZ)/ then I have a choice of how the
word will look/sound in C-a.  If it is /dZ)/ *then* it
doesn't matter (and would, in fact, be impossible to
prove the etymology) since it would come out the same
either way.  If OP <j> is anything else then I have
one of my as-yet-too-rare borrowings from Old
Provencial established.  (Unless the OP sound is
something that would force a C-a form too ugly to
contemplate.) So you see, the sound of OP <j> is all
important to this question.  It is, in fact, the only
question of relevance at this moment of my delirium.

Apparently it is /dZ/ in the _modern_ language[1]; if this is the case it is less likely that it was anything more fricative in the intermediate period (and /x/ can probably be safely discounted altogether).



	*Muke!
[1] http://www.orbilat.com/Languages/Occitan/Grammar/Occitan-Pronunciation.html (the example is miï¿œja "half")
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