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--- habarakhe4 skrzypszy: > What is the derivation of Wenedyk rz compared to r? Sorry for being late! Well, it's quite simply really. Between Vulgar Latin and Modern Wenedyk, there is a stage like "Old Wenedyk" or "Proto-Slavo-Romance" (I don't really have a name for it, but it is an equivalent for Late Common Slavic). Latin _e, e:, i, i:_ cause the palatalisation of the preceding consonant (or _j_ if there isn't any). Thus: re: > r'e > rze re > r'I > rz(e) (*) ri: > r'i > rzy ri > r'I > rz(e) (*) _I_ is a soft jer, an ultrashort, palatalising vowel. Depending on their position in relation to other jers, they can be weak or strong (according to Havlik's rule). A weak jer disappears, leaving only a palatalised consonant behind, and a strong jer becomes _e_. See: <http://www.geocities.com/wenedyk/language/gmp.html> In general, I treat my rules quite liberally. In some cases, when the rules dictate _rz_, I use _r_ instead, just because I like the result more. This is, for example, the case with all infinitive endings. Jan