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The difference in Classic Fortunatian between [t_S], [d_Z], [J], [S] and [t`], [d`], [n`], [s`] is not wholly etymological, but instead is based on a sense of formality. The former is used in daily speech, but the latter has an archaic "Biblical" flair. What I need to know is if this distinction can be described as a "basilectal phonetic distinction". If not, what should I call it?