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Jako pa dicanya vs. Jako pa dica pa


In a message dated 10/6/2005 8:29:38 PM Central Standard Time, MorphemeAddict writes:



> I think I have asked this before (talking about Nasendi or Katanda), but, w=
> hat is the difference between=20
> "Jako pa dicanya" and "Jako pa dica pa"?=20
>
Either one is correct.  Do you know of any natural languages that use
the second form?



How about Bulgarian or Modern Greek?
Steven


More particularly:

Bulgarian has no infinitive and uses the particle "da" between two conjugated verbs.
(az) obicham da risuvam = I like to draw
(az = I; obicham = I like; da = particle 'that, in order to'; risuvam = I draw)

Modern Greek also has no infinitive and uses the particle "na" between two conjugated verbs:
Thelo na ekho = I want to have.
(thelo = I want; na = particle; ekho = 'I have')

Serbo-Croatian *does* have infinitives, and can use them like the first form above, but the preferred form is the second, where they do the same as Bulgarian, "da" between two conjugated verbs:
Moram ruc^ati rano = Moram da ruc^am rano = I must have lunch early.
(moram = 1sg pres. of morati 'must'; ruc^am = 1sg pres. of ruc^ati 'to have lunch'; da = particle 'that, in order to'; rano = adv 'early')

Ona voli piti c^aj = Ona voli da pije c^aj = She likes to drink tea.
(_ona_ = 'she'; voli = 3sg pres of voleti 'to like'; pije = 3sg pres of piti = 'to drink'; da = particle 'that, in order to'; c^aj = 'tea')

Steven