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In very broad overview, he seems to suggest the timing of the main changes in consonants to be:
Assimilation (/ps/ >/ss/, /pt/ > /tt/ etc), beginning way back in BCE Palatisiation, circa 1st to 6th centuries CE Lenition (voicing), circa 7th/8th centuries CE+ Does that sound about right?Now, a question for the sound change experts out there. Hall puts the near-universal voicing of intervocalic consonants in Rom. at around about the same time as the high german sound shift of /p t k/, which is the cornerstone of my conlang. If IMOC there is some factor shifting /p t k/ to /f s x/ rather than /b d g/ , what do you think this would mean for the other unvoiced consonants? Does it seem likely that the stops would go one way, and the remaining consonants another - or would you think if the voicing isn't happening to /p t k/ it likely wouldn't happen at all??
It's becoming very clear my lang is going to share its development with Gallo-Romance up to about this point in time (which also kind of makes sense geographically and historically) so this issue is going to settle the question of whether 'Northern Romance' splits before or after the voicing that starts to affect the rest of western dialects.
Pete.