[YG Conlang Archives] > [romconlang group] > messages [Date Index] [Thread Index] >
Thanks to you all for answering my query about estar vs. ser. How did French
and others get away without having two?
-----Original Message-----
From: romconlang@yahoogroups.com [mailto:romconlang@yahoogroups.com]On
Behalf Of Henrik Theiling
Sent: Saturday, April 22, 2006 6:03 PM
To: romconlang@yahoogroups.com
Subject: Re: [romconlang] estar vs. ser
Hi!
Scotto Hlad writes:
> Hello,
>
> How did estar and ser come to be separate verbs in languages such as
> Portuguese, Spanish and Galician? French seems to combine them in etre
> (which no doubt would have been estre in older times). Did I miss
something
> in high-school Latin class? Or is this more a function of Vulgar Latin
that
> I missed out on as well?
Well, estar < L. stare, ser < PRom. *essere < L. esse. They were two
verbs in Latin.
Or is it not this simple bit of information you were looking for and
instead, you are aiming at a somewhat more deep analysis?
**Henrik
To unsubscribe, send an email to:
romconlang-unsubscribe@yahoogroups.com
----------------------------------------------------------------------------
--
YAHOO! GROUPS LINKS
a.. Visit your group "romconlang" on the web.
b.. To unsubscribe from this group, send an email to:
romconlang-unsubscribe@yahoogroups.com
c.. Your use of Yahoo! Groups is subject to the Yahoo! Terms of
Service.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------
--
[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]