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On Tue, 14 Jan 2003 20:51:47 -0000 "habarakhe4
<theophilus88@hidden.email>" <theophilus88@hidden.email> writes:
> Steg Belsky,
> How on earth did you derive emphatic consonants from Latin?
> Habarakhe/Locutaul [r@kutor]
-
/k./ comes from /kw/ and /gw/:
/akwa/ > [A:k.A:]
/lingwae/ > [link.A:]
/t./ comes from /kt/:
/maktare/ > [mA:t.A:l]
/noktis/ > [not.]
/s./ comes from /ks/:
/eksplo:ra:to:ris/ > [Es.p@lo:rA:so:r]
Or something along those lines.
The idea is that the rounding in /kw/ and /gw/ turns into a backing, so
they become /q/, which when it comes to Semitic emphatics is generally
considered the same thing as a /k./. The dental /t./ and /s./ come from
the preceding /k/ turning into a co-articulated /?/.
-Stephen (Steg)
"she sits in september just waiting for june"
~ 'coming down' by jason spitz
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