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Re: [romanceconlang] Digest Number 29



romanceconlang@hidden.email writes:
>Message: 1
>   Date: Sun, 14 Jan 2001 17:28:44 -0600
>   From: Eric Christopherson <raccoon@hidden.email>
>Subject: Re: Montreiano Conjunctions
>
>On Fri, Jan 05, 2001 at 05:25:22PM -0800, Barry Garcia wrote:
>
>Hi, Barry. I was wondering what the etymology of a few of your
>conjunctions
>is. I know they're close to Spanish, but I'm mystified as to where they
>came
>from in Spanish:
>
>> pero /pero/ - but (not nearly as popular in usage as mas)
>
>(Actually, I've read this comes from <per hoc>, but how/why that would
>mean
>"but" I don't know)

Well, i too have read it comes from "per hoc". Since I only had one source
that really explained the origins (A History of the Spanish Language by
Ralph Penny, IIRC), it explained that it came from that also. In Spanish,
pero competed with mas (no accent), but pero seems to have won out in
spoken language. Mas is found mainly in literature, but it's known by
speakers apparently. 

I like mas more than pero actually, so that's my main reason for it
winning over pero. 
>
>
>> sino /sino/ - but, rather, except
>> pol /pol/ - for
>> **pora que /pora ke/  - so that
>^ Is <pora> a conjunction of pol + a, or something separate? And is it
>pretty much like <para> in Spanish? (And where did <para> come from?)


Well, according to the same book referenced above, in Spanish, para came
from "por a", which later, the a became suffived (again, unless I find out
otherwise, i'll believe that book).  Since the change of final r - l was
much much later (although i'm having second thoughts about that change),
por + a becaume "pora" before the change of r - l. So, instead of changing
the o to a, as happened in Spanish, i've kept it as "pora" for some
difference between Montreiano and Spanish. 

I couldnt get too inventive with the conjunctions, since  realistically,
they should follow similar developments to Spanish and Portuguese. 

____________________________

Yours truly,

Cesar Javier Jaime Garcia