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Re: babel



Finally, critique of verses 7-9, plus thoughts on pronouns:

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Verse 7 Come! We will descend and we will confuse their language 
there, that [they] will not hear [one] man the language [of] his 
friend.

"Ven! Gozi fu dimkoja kay payrofa kuyde bol cu, vopor ke kuy bu fu 
gemaynde boltiq.

7.0: Cool!
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Verse 8 And YHWH scattered them from there on the face of all the 
earth, and they ceased to build the city.

Hi ti jawe pa fentir kuy vofrom cu ko kuljay hu sta dunya, hifoloco 
kuy pa par ke baw to ceq.

8.1: Does "hifoloco" mean 'therefore'? It's not listed in the vocab 
as a compound.
8.2: "hu sta danya" = 'on the face of the earth'. Okay. But see my 
comments on verse 9.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Verse 9 Therefore called its name "Babel," because there YHWH 
confused the language of all the earth, and from there YHWH scattered 
them on the face of all the earth.

Hifuco, to turu kyamho "ti bepayro," cefaco ke ti jawe pa payrofa to 
bol hu pukul to dunya behu, kay juy pa fentir kuy ko kuljay vosta to 
dunya.

9.1: "hifuco" is also 'therefore'? Not present in vocab.
9.2: "cefaco" is 'because'? Not present in vocab. (Nice word, that 
one.)
9.3: "vosta to dunya"... why different from the verse 8 form? If I 
understand "hu" and "vo" right, I think "hu" is what's needed here. 
This is not a verb (or verbal preposition) phrase that modifies "pa 
fentir" directly; it modifies "kuljay" as a subordinate clause, 
doesn't it? Also, "to" is okay to indicate that we're talking about 
the world that we all know, but it could certainly be omitted in 
casual speech. In sum, I would translate the phrase as "hu sta to 
dunya".
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

Regarding the earlier corrections that you replied to, I'm cool with 
your responses. Please put "vo" into the vocab when you get a chance, 
along with the other candidates mentioned above. 

-----------------

I am still stumbling over the Cuy pronouns. It may be that a scheme 
of 'they-most-recently-mentioned', 'they-next-most-recently-
mentioned'... pronouns will develop, or perhaps just 'they-
first', 'they-second'..., or maybe 'they-subject', 'they-object'....? 
A tough one. How does Mandarin, or other languages that feature fewer 
pronouns than English, such as Turkish or Hungarian, avoid confusion?

Or here's a thought about pronoun usage. When we first use a noun or 
name, we don't necessarily know that we'll want to use an anaphor for 
it later. When we do, sometimes we reinforce just which noun is being 
associated with the anaphor. Then from that point forward, we just 
use the anaphor:

Jim and Joe met John. But he - Joe - said he had to leave to pick up 
his kids.

Once we've established clearly that 'he' = 'Joe', we're free to use 
it unencumbered the rest of the way. The listener doesn't have to 
apply a rule based on different forms of 'he'; we give the listener 
the rule explicitly. I feel as though any anaphor scheme, including 
the Cuy scheme, might benefit from this explicit restatement ability. 
What do you think?

--Krawn