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Re: [txeqli] no y, no w



Rex May - Baloo wrote:
> 
> on 3/5/02 12:43 PM, Mike Wright at darwin@hidden.email wrote:
> 
> Do ya?  (sorry Ð I couldn't help it)

That's two syllables for me.

> > Unless there is a great need for such
> > triphthongs, I would avoid them.
> 
> Just in an occasional loan word, like hawa (Arabic for air) or, come to
> think of it, how about 'jawa' for coffee from 'Java'?

But <w> in Arabic is a consonant, and <hawa> is two syllables.

I rather like <jawa> for "coffee", as long as it doesn't have to be a
single syllable.

> > BTW, are vowel combinations other than the defined diphthongs and
> > triphthongs forbidden? If not, then we could simply specify that
> > combinations like <uia> and <iua> are two syllables, and that the
> > default is that the second and third elements form a diphthong. Then,
> > if a loan required something like /ui a/ or /iu e/, an apostrophe
> > could be used to separate the syllables, without necessarily implying
> > a glottal stop.
> 
> I don't know, but I have a feeling that Malay and Japanese will yield words
> with -awa and -ayo and such in them.

Yes, but they won't be triphthongs in the original. Japanese <kawa> is
two syllables.

> > Of course, its much simpler to just stick to the defined diphthongs
> > and triphthongs. It will make pronunciation easier, and it shouldn't
> > interfere too much with bringing in loans. Since morphemes can't begin
> > with vowels, no odd vowel sequences should arise from compounding.
> 
> Quite right.  And since these emails are passing each other slowly, I'll say
> here that I've decided the most sensible thing is to go with the y&w, which,
> as John said, leave no room for confusion.

How so? I'm confused. :-p

Does this mean that we're now writing diphthongs and triphthongs with
<y> and <w>? And, does it mean that <i> and <u> will always represent
syllables? In other words, will <dia> be two syllables and <dya> one
syllable? Or, is <dia> simply disallowed?

> As far as contrasting ai and ay, the only reason to have ai would be because
> it's from a loan word, and in that case we'd just borrow it as ay.  Say,
> English 'pain' is borrowed as 'payn.'
[...]

Spelling pronunciation one-step removed, eh? Instead of <pen>?

-- 
Mike Wright
http://www.CoastalFog.net
_____________________________________________________
"China is a big country, inhabited by many Chinese."  
-- Charles de Gaulle