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On Mon, Mar 04, 2002 at 07:58:58AM -0700, Rex May - Baloo wrote: > If I know what you mean here, this is where disambiguating particles can > show up. > > Xipe hamer kan. Woman hammers dog. > > We can make it clearer thus. > > Xipe da hamer te kan. I would hope so. This usage worries me quite a bit, because it would basically be ambiguous every time. What does it mean when you use a noun without a t-clause? Is it definite, indefinite, or simply vague? Should this really be standard usage (as opposed to only being used where brevity is key)? I can see XIPE HAMER KAN as the headline of a Ceqli newspaper, but I find it rather unappealing for ordinary usage. -- Rob Speer